Question about Lord of the Rings
I'm reviving this old thread because I only have one question. It would be a waste to start a new thread for just one question.
I was watching the International History channel on my cable service, and the show was part 2 of "Books Banned from the Bible". Something caught my ear.
In a 'banned book' called (something like) "Testament of Soloman", a phrase was mentioned that I cannot quote exactly, here, but it was to the effect of "one ring to [something something], one ring to [etc, etc], one ring to [call them forth?] and one ring to [bind them?]".
I can rewatch it to check exactly, if I get a reply to this. The programme is saved on my DVR recorder. But my question is this: isn't that
exactly verbatim a line used in "Lord of the Rings"?
Soloman, in the book, is using this incantation to call up satan, I believe. This is one of the reasons it is believed the book was banned. But they do (in regards to another part of the 'banned book') mention a tie-in to an existing "in the bible" quote of Jesus', when he was raising Lazarus from the dead. He refers to Soloman. It was pointed out that this 'banned book' might explain why that is so: that Soloman was known to be a sorcerer and has his own tale about raising a young man from the dead. So this book may actually have tie-ins that are hard to ignore and dismiss.
Anyhow, that whole raising of the dead has nothing to do with my question.
So I'll just stop here. Does anyone remember/know what the exact quote was in Lord of the Rings, as far as "one ring to bind them" might go? If so, I'd appreciate your making a note of it here.
In advance, thanks.